krus_aragon
Established Member
Interesting reading. I don't suppose you can tell us where the quote's from?Heading wildly off-topic, but at least one High Court judge disagrees with you.
Interesting reading. I don't suppose you can tell us where the quote's from?Heading wildly off-topic, but at least one High Court judge disagrees with you.
Balvinder Singh v Salinder Singh, Sukhjind Kaur, Glass Express Midlands Ltd, GEM Blinds LtdInteresting reading. I don't suppose you can tell us where the quote's from?
Thanks. A bit of context helps.Balvinder Singh v Salinder Singh, Sukhjind Kaur, Glass Express Midlands Ltd, GEM Blinds Ltd
Case No: A30BM434
High Court of Justice Chancery Division Birmingham District Registry
[2016] EWHC 1432 (Ch), 2016 WL 03268479
Before: HHJ David Cooke
I am not sure where you have this understanding from, but as @tony_mac cites, it is simply not correct. I did allude to the remote possibility that such evidence may be disallowed, but then again that would take some very unusual circumstances to be the case. Judges are almost never going to reject relevant evidence, howsoever gathered, merely because they disapprove of its method of obtainment.I think you will find that if you haven't informed the person that you intend to record the call then it cannot be used as evidence.
Whilst tamper-proof recording may lend the recording greater credence, I think it is very rare for one side to allege that a recording is inaccurate, misleading or fraudulent. Perhaps you are applying the criminal standard of evidence to this matter - the criminal standard is not the correct one, since an unpaid Penalty Fare would (theoretically) end up before the County Court, which of course applies the much lower civil standard of evidence.Plus it has to have been recorded in a manner that does not allow tampering with it.
It isn't actually even very off-topic - it is highly relevant if the OP decides to call GTR and to record it.Heading wildly off-topic, but at least one High Court judge disagrees with you.
What’s the problem? She asked a question that’s all.
OK, maybe she did buy a childs ticket deliberately, or maybe it was a mistake, you and I don’t know for certain.
I don't normally pass comment on things like this but this one’s got to me a bit.
She’s been penalty fared at Brighton. She’s gutted. The last thing she needs is that kind
of attitude when she asks a civil question.
And as for the “usual suspects attempting to get you [Her] off the hook” I thought that that is what this part of the forum is all about, giving advice?
With all due respect, if you don’t like reading about this subject please don’t read this section of the forum!
How do we know the OP's age? They might be a child for almost all purposes throughout their life (not having the right to fully own property, not having the right to vote, etc.) and therefore consider themselves a child, and yet the railway might consider them an adult. It's perfectly feasible for infrequent passengers aged 16 and 17 to think they are entitled to a child rate ticket.You don't do this accidentally.
I don't see what the relevance of other cases is, or how you can consider the other poster's comments in order. In this particular case GTR have decided to settle the matter by means of a Penalty Fare, a penalty laid down in law. They did so otherwise than in accordance with the law, and now they must face the consequences of that. I see no reason to condone their breach of the law.In a lot of cases, the advice given to someone is to negotiate an out of court settlement with the TOC concerned. In this case that would be substantially more than the PF, so yes the poster was in order making the comments they did.
Please, not this again...They might be a child for almost all purposes throughout their life (not having the right to fully own property, not having the right to vote, etc.) and therefore consider themselves a child, and yet the railway might consider them an adult.
Excellent post ForTheLoveOf
All I'm trying to say is that an "adult" travelling with a "child" ticket is not necessarily always fare evasion. It is easy to jump to conclusions.Please, not this again...
In this particular case GTR have decided to settle the matter by means of a Penalty Fare, a penalty laid down in law. They did so otherwise than in accordance with the law, and now they must face the consequences of that. I see no reason to condone their breach of the law.
I agree - it is demonstrative of a system where, despite notionally having a Rail Ombudsman, passengers' rights are still not properly secured and enforced by an independent body with teeth.How long has the company been using a pad like that? What have the bodies charged with representing the interests of passengers been doing all that time? Where was the ORR? The DfT? Transport Focus? London Travelwatch? How about the company ceases using that pad immediately and refunds every Penalty Fare it has issued using notices similar to that one? It's not difficult to produce notices that comply with the regulations both in letter and in spirit! I didn't mention it above as it has only peripheral relevance, but perhaps the most serious non-compliance is the apparent misrepresentation of the grounds allowed for appeal. There is no mention that you can appeal on the grounds that the PF was not issued in accordance with the requirements of the Regulations - but rather the notice states that in your appeal you should provide "the reason why you could not produce a valid ticket or authority to travel when requested" when no such requirement exists. In other words, people who might have had other valid grounds for appeal were not informed correctly of their rights and consequently might not have exercised them. (Appeal Panels do have discretion to accept late appeals.)
The only stage at which prosecution is entirely ruled out is if the Penalty Fare is paid, or ...
It doesn't state that it is permissible to bring a prosecution, just that if one is brought, any amount paid must be refunded. I am sure @furlong will be able to elaborate on the potential implications of a prosecution that's an abuse of process, if you wish.I'm not sure paying completely removes the threat of prosecution. While it might be viewed as abuse of process, 11 (2) refers to a refund if a prosecution is brought.
https://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/2018/366/made
Its also lawful for a private individual to record a phonecall if you don't ask for permission. I don't know where the myth comes from that you can't - probably from companies that don't want individuals recording phonecalls that prove they are trying to get one over on the individual.While the errors on the notice might be shocking, as @Throwaway68396It's lawful to record a phone call if you get permission beforehand. You can then say, "OK, so I've started recording the conversation as we agreed - could you just confirm that you've given permission?". In this case you wouldn't need to ask until/unless they say you don't need to pay. If they do say that, it would in any case seem reasonable to ask them to confirm it in writing before the deadline.
With all due respect, the normality on this forum is to make people accountable for their actions. In this case the person travelled on a child ticket. You don't do this accidentally.
The distinction seems to be about who you play it to. I should have clarified - this is from a previous thread:Its also lawful for a private individual to record a phonecall if you don't ask for permission. ....A private individual can record phonecalls as long as it is for their own purposes. Those purposes can include simply being able to remember what was said, or even to use as evidence against the company if they try to backtrack or deny what has been said.
This makes some points about use of such evidence in court:Isn't the position as follows?
You may lawfully record your own contributions to a phone conversation, from mouth to microphone, without any special restriction on use.
You may lawfully record both or all parties' contributions to a phone conversation you take part in. However, legal problems may arise from playing the recording to someone else. You might want to use the recording in a way which, if you didn't have permission, would breach the employee's privacy (such as playing it to someone so that you can ask their advice).
In cases which may at some stage involve court, obtaining permission to record may turn out to be useful - including for the court's decisions about compensation.
It's but a technicality to say that you can't be prosecuted vs you can't be convicted. A train company would be liable for damages in malicious prosecution (and potentially even a prosecution against themselves) if they conducted a prosecution they had agreed not to undertake by means of the issuance of a Penalty Fare.Perhaps we can agree that
"if you pay a penalty fare, normally you wouldn't expect to be prosecuted"
rather than
"it means prosecution is entirely ruled out".
Perhaps if you are a company, but not as an individual. It's the other way around - you can record it, and there are only a few exceptions as to when you can't.If you want it to be heard by anyone else, then you do need permission (there are a few exceptions but none of them are relevant here)
You'd have to ask for permission to adduce it regardless of whether the other party consented. Either way it's likely to be granted if it's relevant evidence.You would probably have to ask a judge (or magistrate) if it could be used if you hadn't asked for permission.
Many people, including me, are already highly suspicious of most TOCs' revenue departments so that wouldn't be anything new!I would be highly suspicious of anyone who would not carry on a conversation because you wanted to record it.
The (old) advice Oftel gave is in line with that from both law firms linked to above, and to my knowledge other relevant sources in general:
https://webarchive.nationalarchives...rchive/oftel/consumer/advice/faqs/prvfaq3.htmOftel previously said:Recording or monitoring are only prohibited where some of the contents of the communication - which can be a phone conversation or an e-mail - are made available to a third party
It is not a breach of privacy to record a phone call which is being made by a representative of a company who is acting on their behalf, especially considering that the call may already be being recorded on their side for internal purposes. There is nothing private about the conversation and no expectation of privacy whatsoever. For all you know the person on the other end could have the call on loudspeaker to 10 other people.If what is being suggested to people looking for advice is that recording a phone call secretly and then playing it to a third party is lawful, then that might need evidence or at least the views of lawyers.
Many people, including me, are already highly suspicious of most TOCs' revenue departments so that wouldn't be anything new!