What he seems to be missing is that because loads of people didn't travel Thameslink have had less income for providing the service.
Except Thameslink don't get the fare revenue, so unlike a conventional TOC this isn't the case for them.
What he seems to be missing is that because loads of people didn't travel Thameslink have had less income for providing the service.
What he seems to be missing is that because loads of people didn't travel Thameslink have had less income for providing the service.
[pedant]Except Thameslink don't get the fare revenue, so unlike a conventional TOC this isn't the case for them.
Less people are at work, which means Thameslink/HMG can save resources.
Of course that is more relevant than it may at first seem. Peak fares are (and should be) priced to recover proportionately the total additional costs of providing the high capacity and frequency required to carry the peak load. On Thameslink routes, that includes:[pedant]
What he seems to be missing is that because loads of people didn't travel the DfT have had less income to pay Thameslink for providing the service.
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If they reduced the fares would that lead to a good news story and encourage people to travel?[pedant]
What he seems to be missing is that because loads of people didn't travel the DfT have had less income to pay Thameslink for providing the service.
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I'm afraid this isn't true. Different companies adopt different policies. Some do a better job than others....and they have done every year since railways were invented.
The railway charges peak fares for travel before a certain time in the morning on working weekdays. The number of people travelling and the service offered has nothing to do with it.
I don't think so. Northern charge the morning and afternoon peak fares on the days in question, in contrast to Thameslink's decision to ease some, though not all, restrictions.Can I just say "Home Counties problem".
I think the more important question is whether or not the OP had the right to expect a better service than they received for the price paid.But peak / off-peak is nothing to do with service provision, just time of travel.
I have to say, I'm amazed they gave you anything at all.
Can I just say "Home Counties problem".
It could simply be that they dislike being charged a higher price than normal for what they can legitimately regard as an inferior service, regardless of your ideas about what services elsewhere might be like by comparison.It’s borderline tragic and sounds like he has an agenda with Thameslink.
It could simply be that they dislike being charged a higher price than normal for what they can legitimately regard as an inferior service
Of all the complaints about service I have seen on this forum, IMHO the OP's gripe has to be one of the most pathetic.The OP however has a sense of entitlement to compensation because his service was reduced to 4TPH and it took slightly longer.
That's perfectly legitimate though, and it's childish of you to pretend it isn't just so that you can look good on a forum.His objection is presented as being unhappy that it has cost Thameslink less to run their services today and as a result he should have paid less, despite travelling on a peak time train that he was very happy with.
Some time-sensitive London retailers do. There were some great lunch deals around the banking districts today to entice people in. Why shouldn't Thameslink reduce fares if they're providing a reduced service on a weaker demand day? It might attract more travelers and avoid what some call carting fresh air.Presumably less people were at your place of work today. Did you reduce your prices (or your income) to compensate for this?
Why shouldn't Thameslink reduce fares if they're providing a reduced service on a weaker demand day?
Sorry if I expressed it badly but I was asking if it was morally justified. Shouldn't not couldn't because they could, can and do charge peak fares for off peak service levels.Because they can still extract the maximum peak fare from those who have no choice but to come into work today regardless of what service they are running.
Sorry if I expressed it badly but I was asking if it was morally justified.
This really doesn't have anything to do with the subject matter, and Thameslink's contract is hardly the only one that has ever been which is on a gross cost basis... They exist elsewhere in rail operations too.Except Thameslink don't get the fare revenue, so unlike a conventional TOC this isn't the case for them.
Yes, that's a better way of explaining what I was trying to get at. I would argue that the very fact this is the third year means that the OP knew even more so what they were getting when they bought the ticket.I think the more important question is whether or not the OP had the right to expect a better service than they received for the price paid.
The fact that normally those paying the rate he did get a much faster service, at a more convenient time, does demonstrate that the OP paid more and received less. The problem which you are trying to explain, as I see it, is that the OP had an expectation which may have been unjustified.
Now, for example, if they had booked their ticket in advance and at that time the better service was shown as being available, but then only an inferior service were actually delivered, it would be clear that the OP's point about partial compensation is legitimate.
I seriously doubt it's only occurred over the past three years. It's always happened.I would argue that the very fact this is the third year means that the OP knew even more so what they were getting when they bought the ticket.
I know that, but the OP specifically mentioned that this is the third year in a row.I seriously doubt it's only occurred over the past three years. It's always happened.