centraltrains
Member
Question based off reading this thread: https://www.railforums.co.uk/threads/validity-of-disabled-railcard.170430/ but felt it was a bit too off topic for there.
Do disabled railcards exist as an incentivize to encourage rail travel or to accommodate reasonable adjustments?
To state my position: I have a disabled railcard as I get PIP as I have Autism. (I have only just started doing some journeys on my own after travel training)
I never feel that using a disabled railcard discounted ticket on my own would justify a discount (via the railcard). For my context, there is no reason why I would need to be incentivized to travel by rail with a discount, and don't need a discount, so don't see how a discount is morally justifiable. If there is no reason where my disability specifically stops me from needing assistance/discount it doesn't feel justified.
If travelling with a carer, I can see that there is a valid reason for a discount if I can't travel on my own.
When visiting attractions, a reasonable adjustment is usually made, so the carer can enter free as the disabled person wouldn't be able to enter on their own. I don't see why this circumstance can't apply for rail travel? Following that logic, I would expect a disabled railcard to just offer free travel to the carer when the disabled person has full priced tickets. I wonder why it isn't like this with trains as it could surely be stated it is otherwise discriminatory in the same way as it would for visiting attractions?
Surely in a society where equality seems to be the main aim, you could question that they don't help promote equality where the discount isn't specific to just meet need?
Do disabled railcards exist as an incentivize to encourage rail travel or to accommodate reasonable adjustments?
To state my position: I have a disabled railcard as I get PIP as I have Autism. (I have only just started doing some journeys on my own after travel training)
I never feel that using a disabled railcard discounted ticket on my own would justify a discount (via the railcard). For my context, there is no reason why I would need to be incentivized to travel by rail with a discount, and don't need a discount, so don't see how a discount is morally justifiable. If there is no reason where my disability specifically stops me from needing assistance/discount it doesn't feel justified.
If travelling with a carer, I can see that there is a valid reason for a discount if I can't travel on my own.
When visiting attractions, a reasonable adjustment is usually made, so the carer can enter free as the disabled person wouldn't be able to enter on their own. I don't see why this circumstance can't apply for rail travel? Following that logic, I would expect a disabled railcard to just offer free travel to the carer when the disabled person has full priced tickets. I wonder why it isn't like this with trains as it could surely be stated it is otherwise discriminatory in the same way as it would for visiting attractions?
Surely in a society where equality seems to be the main aim, you could question that they don't help promote equality where the discount isn't specific to just meet need?