Egg Centric
Established Member
The train companies have agreements where they can act on behalf of each other over things like this.
For 'normal' fares a system called ORCATS is used to split the revenue between the different train operators where more than one company can be used. I don't think it applies to settlements like this, but it's generally swings and roundabouts as there will be other cases where Avanti deal with a case involving another operator.
I understand why TOCs can request the full price of train ticket(s) in an out of court settlement.
What I don't understand is the legal theory that allows them to get as compensation the entire price of a ticket that ordinarily they'd only be entitled to a certain percentage of (due to ORCATS, dealer cuts, etc) - or in some cases involving serial offenders perhaps none at all (such as when a prosecution is made by one TOC for a series of tickets some of which were at the other end of the country) when that figure is being awarded by the court. I can see why it would be desirable for the offender to lost at least the price of the ticket, but not why it should end up with the TOC.
Note that this is not a discussion about whether they should be charging full anytime singles or something else. Nor is it me stating anything about what the TOCs "should" get. I'd just like to understand the legal basis for being compensated the entire ticket; it's not intuitively obvious to me how it's allowed.