Transilien
Member
Cities like Birmingham and Manchester grew greatly both in importance and population during this time period. So, why didn't any of these cities follow the example of London or Glasgow and build a metro system of their own?
Yes, didn't the introduction of trams lead to some big falls in passenger numbers on some inner suburban railways and stations in cities like Manchester and Birmingham? Trams were faster, more frequent and cheaper. That would not have encouraged anyone to invest in more urban railways.I doubt it's the only reason given that it applied to London and Glasgow as well, but maybe trams (and normal railways) were thought to be sufficient?
...also the excellent series of Capital Transport books on each of the lines published in the 1990s. The more recent Wolmar book is readable if you can ignore one or two inaccuracies and errors.A very complex history indeed , covered in detail by the likes of Charles Klapper etc.
Railways were privately funded.The Treasury.
I mean post 1945.Railways were privately funded.
Yes, but the original question was about the first generation of underground railways in the 19th Century.I mean post 1945.
However, Glasgow had a large and very efficient tram network. Very few of the suburban rail lines there closed because of tram competition, in contrast to Aberdeen for example. Even today, Glasgow has the largest UK suburban rail network outside London.Yes, didn't the introduction of trams lead to some big falls in passenger numbers on some inner suburban railways and stations in cities like Manchester and Birmingham? Trams were faster, more frequent and cheaper. That would not have encouraged anyone to invest in more urban railways.
London was larger and lacked a comprehensive tram network.
Yes, didn't the introduction of trams lead to some big falls in passenger numbers on some inner suburban railways and stations in cities like Manchester and Birmingham? Trams were faster, more frequent and cheaper. That would not have encouraged anyone to invest in more urban railways.
London was larger and lacked a comprehensive tram network.
In Glasgow neither the trams nor suburban rail crossed the tidal Clyde around Govan (and the ferries were unreliable and low capacity) hence a niche for the Subway.However, Glasgow had a large and very efficient tram network. Very few of the suburban rail lines there closed because of tram competition, in contrast to Aberdeen for example. Even today, Glasgow has the largest UK suburban rail network outside London.
Of course low frequencies doesn't necessarily mean a service wasn't fairly well-used, especially if it drew most of its traffic from commuting to work.Although few Glasgow suburban passenger services might have been entirely withdrawn because of tram competition quite a few had distinctly vestigial frequencies. This can be traced back even to pre-grouping days when the Caledonian and North British were still in active competition. (Think: irregular, less than hourly trains, while going past the station door there was probably 'always a tram in sight'.)
Yes, but the original question was about the first generation of underground railways in the 19th Century.
Both Birmingham and Manchester have sandstone (Permo-Triassic age) bedrock which would have been easy to tunnel through.For the Birmingham, I have heard unsuitable geology and soils was part of the reason.
Barcelona is another non-capital city that had a metro before WW2. Also, Budapest was not a capital when its metro was first built.When asking why no other UK cities got underground system round the turn of the century, it’s worth pointing out that in having 2 cities with underground systems by 1900 we were, IIRC, unique in Europe. Even by WW2 there were still only single figures in the whole of Europe, with (I think) Glasgow and Hamburg being the only non capital cities.
Hadn’t realised about Barcelona. Beg to differ re Budapest - Hungary became a sovereign state with Budapest as its capital with its monarchy in personal union with Austria (Austria-Hungary)Barcelona is another non-capital city that had a metro before WW2. Also, Budapest was not a capital when its metro was first built.
I doubt it's the only reason given that it applied to London and Glasgow as well, but maybe trams (and normal railways) were thought to be sufficient?
Along with those reasons, the city centres of Manchester and Birmingham are still quite compact, so most destinations are in walking distance of one of the main stations. London was much bigger even then, and also had a rule that railways had to stop at what was then the edge of the city (Euston Road etc). So something else was needed to get people around in the centre.
Yes, from the Ausgleich in the spring of 1867 onwards it was a personal union only, with only certain functions joint between the Austrian Empire (to give it the short name) and the Kingdom of Hungary, and in many areas Hungary went its own nationalistic way. Transport was certainly not a joint function and rather different policies were pursued. In 1867 there was no Budapest—that came in late 1873 with the formal amalgamation of three existing cities. The new grand buildings of government were all on the left bank of the Danube. At the end of the century came the Metro.Hadn’t realised about Barcelona. Beg to differ re Budapest - Hungary became a sovereign state with Budapest as its capital with its monarchy in personal union with Austria (Austria-Hungary)
Similarly, Brussels has its Pre-metro, which has presumably survived far longer than intended!An interesting variation on the theme is the Oslo metro, which I understand began as a tram system in the 19th century and started to develop into an underground from the 1920s.
So did quite a few other cities in Benelux and Germany. This may be part of reason why few British cities have metros compared with European ones - we abandoned all but one of our tramways and the Continentals upgraded theirs. But it doesn't answer the OP's question which was about what happened or didn't happen 50 years before that.Similarly, Brussels has its Pre-metro, which has presumably survived far longer than intended!
Different stand-alone systems. Manchester->Bury was one of the earlier bespoke systems. Electrified back in 1916 and operated using 1200v DC (third rail) and stayed that way until conversion to Metrolink tram operations in 1991. Why spend any more money?Wouldn't the Manchester-Bury electrification be a sort of precursor to a metro system? And then stymied by the First World War and Grouping and then not expanded? Then why was the Manchester-Altrincham line electrified to a different standard? Or the Bury line converted to match?