WelshBluebird
Established Member
- Joined
- 14 Jan 2010
- Messages
- 4,924
Not at all. I literally said that, and I quote, "Yes travel was greatly reduced compared to normal but that doesn't mean nobody at all was travelling".It seems to me you’re trying to make out that masses of people were still traveling which really wasn’t the case at all.
You were the only who literally said that "nobody was travelling".
If people are quarantining for a certain amount of days (usually ten) and isolating from others then how could the virus spread so far and wide?
- Some people were exempt from the quarantine.
- Some people just skipped the quarantine totally.
- Some people broke the quarantine to do things (e.g. go to a bar).
In terms of the quarantine in Australia? Some people absolutely were. There's quite a few news articles about it if you want to use Google.You can’t say that people were breaking the rules and marching because that never happened last year
In terms of lockdown in the UK? Some people were breaking the rules (even those in favour of lockdown knew that they wouldn't get 100% compliance with the rules), and as I've explained other people had legitimate reasons to travel too.
Remember this part of the conversation started because you said that the virus wasn't spread by humans travelling.
I am not trying to get into an argument - however you are claiming some very specific things that are just not true ("nobody was travelling during lockdown 1", "Australia had its borders locked shut with nobody in or out", "humans travelling didn't spread the virus"). If you do not believe that the virus was spread by people travelling, then how do you think it spread? (I've asked you a few times now, you haven't actually given an answer).