I'm curious to know how it is decided whether a train is an "appropriate" connecting train for a TOC & CONNECTIONS advance ticket.
Here's a potentially extreme example:
With the right inputs, I can get trainsplit.com to offer me a £8.90 (16-25 railcard) VTWC & Connections advance ticket for Preston to Glasgow Central via the Cumbrian Coast and Kilmarnock (see attached example itinerary). The only VT leg of that itinerary is the first one, from Preston to Lancaster.
I can see the logic in the booking system - that the journey a) follows a permitted route, b) has a VT leg, and c) the non-VT operators have not prevented their legs from being used on VT+Connections tickets.
However, if I were to book this ticket I think I'd struggle to justify my choice of connections as "appropriate" (especially given the obvious direct VT trains from Preston to Glasgow), other than appealing to the itinerary issued with the ticket - these non-VT legs typically don't offer reservations.
What are your thoughts on whether an example like this would be acceptable?
Here's a potentially extreme example:
With the right inputs, I can get trainsplit.com to offer me a £8.90 (16-25 railcard) VTWC & Connections advance ticket for Preston to Glasgow Central via the Cumbrian Coast and Kilmarnock (see attached example itinerary). The only VT leg of that itinerary is the first one, from Preston to Lancaster.
I can see the logic in the booking system - that the journey a) follows a permitted route, b) has a VT leg, and c) the non-VT operators have not prevented their legs from being used on VT+Connections tickets.
However, if I were to book this ticket I think I'd struggle to justify my choice of connections as "appropriate" (especially given the obvious direct VT trains from Preston to Glasgow), other than appealing to the itinerary issued with the ticket - these non-VT legs typically don't offer reservations.
What are your thoughts on whether an example like this would be acceptable?