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Do TOC prosecutions have to pass a public interest test?

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najaB

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Hi, while reading this thread http://www.railforums.co.uk/showthread.php?t=123166 I've been wondering if there's any duty on TOCs' to only launch prosecutions which are in the public interest.
I may very well be wrong, but as private prosecutions they aren't required to - however they still should not be seen to be wasting the Court's time with trivial cases.

The situation is different in Scotland where private prosecutions are only possible with permission from the High Court of Justiciary. This is incredibly rare.
 

mikeg

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As far as I know (and IANAL) the answer is no but:

If a case is particularly seen to be against the public interest can't the CPS take over a case and then drop it?
 

DaveNewcastle

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A Private Prosecution is brought about by a private individual or Corporate body or agency because it has its own reasons for seeking to bring an offender to justice. Of course it doesn't need to pass a public interest test of any form, that's the hurdle that a public prosecutor, acting on behalf of the state (and its taxpayers, and/or the crown, depending on your point of view) must satisfy.

Private Prosecutions arose centuries before public prosecutions. For many years the crown simply manadated tariffs of penalties that would apply to certain offences, but left it to the victim to prosecute them. It was much later that Constables and Police forces were created, and then later again that the Crown Prosecution Service (adding both an additional layer of bureaucracy and a layer of independence from the investigatory role of the police) came into being.

The real benefit of having an independence from the state to bring about a private prosecution might be illustrated by some of the more widely publicised private prosecutions :

Relatives of Hillsborough football ground disaster brought about a Private Prosecution against two Police Officers where the state would not.

The PRS (on behalf of music copyright owners), the H&SE (on behalf of the public and staff at risk), the RSPCA (on behalf of animals) all bring about private prosecutions where crime is detected and a public interest test would possibly fail.

The 'Glasgow bin lorry case'. The Crown Prosecutor announced that no public prosecution would be brought forward. It is appropriate that a relative of a deceased could bring about a Private Prosecution where the State had declined. This has not (yet) been summonsed.

The parents of Londoner Stephen Lawrence brought about a Private Prosecution of the Metropolitan Police following the fatal shooting of their son, after the Crown had decided not to prosecute.

mikeg is correct that the 1985 Act allows the Director of Public Prosecutions to intervene in a private prosecution, and to take it over, and also, it allows him/her to present no evidence (thereby terminating the action).

The potential for a private prosecution is a valuable safeguard which is, in itself, in the public interest, while the risk remains that the CPS have neither the ability, resources, interest or capacity to pursue a matter.
So, no, I cannot agree that "there should be" a public interest test to a private prosecution. That is simply a contradiction in terms. The difference between public and private "should be" as consistently clear in social policy (including law) as it is in ethics.

If parliament sees fit to introduce statutes, and the state declines to prosecute an alleged offence against that statute, then it is surely in the public interest that there remains the long-established procedure for another person to prosecute that crime. At their own risk, and at their own assessment of what is 'in their interest'.

The situation is different in Scotland where private prosecutions are only possible with permission from the High Court of Justiciary. This is incredibly rare.
Yes. The last one was X v Sweeney in 1982 and since then there have only been a few applications for permission, and none of those applications to my knowledge has been granted. However, procedures changed in July 2015, and a victim of a crime in Scotland may now request a review of a decision not to prosecute under the 2014 Victims and Witnesses (Scotland) Act S.4 . I wouldn't want to suggest that any 'floodgates' had been opened, but I have seen some interesting moves by parties who might otherwise have been denied access to justice, and expect to see more to come.

. . . however they still should not be seen to be wasting the Court's time with trivial cases.
You remind me of one case which after several Appeals and Judicial Reviews was brought to the House of Lords. But by the time the matter reached the Lords, the law had changed, so there could no longer be any public benefit from situations arising elsewhere. Proceedings began by the Appellant apologetically asking if the 7 Lords would still be willing to hear the matter in the knowledge that it could have no benefit for anyone else. The answer was immediate : "Oh yes, we're often asked to give a decision that has no effect on anyone else. We don't mind. Please go ahead". (or words to that effect - this is from memory, I don't have my transcript to hand). The matter was argued fully in front of the Lords, who found for the Appelant, but to no benefit other than setting the basis of the costs to be awarded from all the lower courts.
 
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Shempz

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A Private Prosecution is brought about by a private individual or Corporate body or agency because it has its own reasons for seeking to bring an offender to justice.


Now correct me if I'm wrong here, but that line insinuates that the accused is guilty already by labelling them an "offender" - not to mention the bit about seeking to bring them to justice!
 

najaB

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Now correct me if I'm wrong here, but that line insinuates that the accused is guilty already by labelling them an "offender" - not to mention the bit about seeking to bring them to justice!
But why would you bring a prosecution against someone who you don't see as guilty and want to bring to justice?
 

Haywain

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Now correct me if I'm wrong here, but that line insinuates that the accused is guilty already by labelling them an "offender" - not to mention the bit about seeking to bring them to justice!

If the accused is found not guilty they will not be an offender and will not have been brought to justice. Those bringing a prosecution clearly have no interest in achieving this result.
 

dcsprior

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Thanks for the answers. I hadn't actually realised that a TOC prosecution was a private prosecution - I wrongly assumed that the companies gained the ability when part of the government, and retained it when privatised.

I would have also wrongly assumed that any prosecutions by the HSE weren't private ones; and possibly the RSPCA too.

Coming back to what prompted me to ask the question: is there anything to prevent a passenger if they have committed an offence by the letter of the law but where most reasonable people would feel they had nothing wrong?
 

najaB

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Coming back to what prompted me to ask the question: is there anything to prevent a passenger if they have committed an offence by the letter of the law but where most reasonable people would feel they had nothing wrong?
I think you've left out a key word or two in this question...
 

Stigy

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A Private Prosecution is brought about by a private individual or Corporate body or agency because it has its own reasons for seeking to bring an offender to justice. Of course it doesn't need to pass a public interest test of any form, that's the hurdle that a public prosecutor, acting on behalf of the state (and its taxpayers, and/or the crown, depending on your point of view) must satisfy.
I agree they will have their own reasons for wanting to prosecute an individual, but all cases, whether private or not must be in the public interest as the outcome is the same with any CPS case in that the TOC don't benefit from a conviction. The outcome and any sentences still rely on the tax payer, as with any CPS case, hence where public interest come in to it. The company's prosecutors must also adhere to CPS guidance and 'the code' whilst pursuing such cases. This is also largely why TOCs offer out of court settlements for one-off cases, as it demonstrates that where possible, they won't criminalise people.
 
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ian959

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I am no lawyer but private prosecutions do not have a sentence per se since most private prosecutions would be for recovery of debt or compensation for damages and therefore the complainant would receive benefit from a successful prosecution. There is NO public interest in a private prosecution hence why they are called private prosecutions. These would fall well outside the usual CPS cases. In a case brought by a TOC to court, they get the benefit of the compensation awarded to them surely, usually the fare avoided and their costs?
 

Stigy

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I am no lawyer but private prosecutions do not have a sentence per se since most private prosecutions would be for recovery of debt or compensation for damages and therefore the complainant would receive benefit from a successful prosecution. There is NO public interest in a private prosecution hence why they are called private prosecutions. These would fall well outside the usual CPS cases. In a case brought by a TOC to court, they get the benefit of the compensation awarded to them surely, usually the fare avoided and their costs?
A Private Prosecution brought by a TOC for fare evasion etc would go through the Magistrates' Court and are criminal matters, therefore the penalties or sentences would be the same (or there about) as if the same offence was brought by the CPS. Only through cases of a civil matter, using the County Court, would the emphasis be more on compensation and costs. They are only called private prosecutions because the CPS isn't doing the prosecuting, and as such the term has no bearing on the outcome of such cases. This is the same for other agencies such as the RSPCA and DVSA.
 
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infobleep

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A Private Prosecution is brought about by a private individual or Corporate body or agency because it has its own reasons for seeking to bring an offender to justice. Of course it doesn't need to pass a public interest test of any form, that's the hurdle that a public prosecutor, acting on behalf of the state (and its taxpayers, and/or the crown, depending on your point of view) must satisfy.

Private Prosecutions arose centuries before public prosecutions. For many years the crown simply manadated tariffs of penalties that would apply to certain offences, but left it to the victim to prosecute them. It was much later that Constables and Police forces were created, and then later again that the Crown Prosecution Service (adding both an additional layer of bureaucracy and a layer of independence from the investigatory role of the police) came into being.

The real benefit of having an independence from the state to bring about a private prosecution might be illustrated by some of the more widely publicised private prosecutions :

Relatives of Hillsborough football ground disaster brought about a Private Prosecution against two Police Officers where the state would not.

The PRS (on behalf of music copyright owners), the H&SE (on behalf of the public and staff at risk), the RSPCA (on behalf of animals) all bring about private prosecutions where crime is detected and a public interest test would possibly fail.

The 'Glasgow bin lorry case'. The Crown Prosecutor announced that no public prosecution would be brought forward. It is appropriate that a relative of a deceased could bring about a Private Prosecution where the State had declined. This has not (yet) been summonsed.

The parents of Londoner Stephen Lawrence brought about a Private Prosecution of the Metropolitan Police following the fatal shooting of their son, after the Crown had decided not to prosecute.

mikeg is correct that the 1985 Act allows the Director of Public Prosecutions to intervene in a private prosecution, and to take it over, and also, it allows him/her to present no evidence (thereby terminating the action).

The potential for a private prosecution is a valuable safeguard which is, in itself, in the public interest, while the risk remains that the CPS have neither the ability, resources, interest or capacity to pursue a matter.
So, no, I cannot agree that "there should be" a public interest test to a private prosecution. That is simply a contradiction in terms. The difference between public and private "should be" as consistently clear in social policy (including law) as it is in ethics.

If parliament sees fit to introduce statutes, and the state declines to prosecute an alleged offence against that statute, then it is surely in the public interest that there remains the long-established procedure for another person to prosecute that crime. At their own risk, and at their own assessment of what is 'in their interest'.

Yes. The last one was X v Sweeney in 1982 and since then there have only been a few applications for permission, and none of those applications to my knowledge has been granted. However, procedures changed in July 2015, and a victim of a crime in Scotland may now request a review of a decision not to prosecute under the 2014 Victims and Witnesses (Scotland) Act S.4 . I wouldn't want to suggest that any 'floodgates' had been opened, but I have seen some interesting moves by parties who might otherwise have been denied access to justice, and expect to see more to come.

You remind me of one case which after several Appeals and Judicial Reviews was brought to the House of Lords. But by the time the matter reached the Lords, the law had changed, so there could no longer be any public benefit from situations arising elsewhere. Proceedings began by the Appellant apologetically asking if the 7 Lords would still be willing to hear the matter in the knowledge that it could have no benefit for anyone else. The answer was immediate : "Oh yes, we're often asked to give a decision that has no effect on anyone else. We don't mind. Please go ahead". (or words to that effect - this is from memory, I don't have my transcript to hand). The matter was argued fully in front of the Lords, who found for the Appelant, but to no benefit other than setting the basis of the costs to be awarded from all the lower courts.
If the English and Welsh private prosecutions are so good, why isn't the same law brought in, in Scotland?

I can see why private prosecutions are useful. What if Hillsborough had occurred in Scotland?
 

najaB

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If the English and Welsh private prosecutions are so good, why isn't the same law brought in, in Scotland?
Because there is no power to "bring it in" in Scotland. Scottish law is a separate and equal legal system.

Edit: That said, changes made last year have made it more likely that permission will be granted for private prosecutions in future. The legal fraternity are watching with great interest to see what happens in the case of the families of the victims of the Glasgow bin lorry crash. As I understand it they are attempting to bring a private prosecution against Harry Clarke due facts that have come to light subsequent to the Procurator Fiscal's decision not to bring charges.
 
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DaveNewcastle

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The company's prosecutors must also adhere to CPS guidance and 'the code' whilst pursuing such cases.
I hesitate to disagree, and in fact I will agree up to a point, that a prosecutor acting for a Railway Company would, as a matter of good practice and of policy, act in accordance with CPS guidance.
However, my discussion above was in the more general form of a contrast between policy in public and private prosecutions; and in that I believe that I am correct that there is no binding requirement on an individual, a corporate body, an agency or an unincorporated body who brings forward a prosecution (a private prosecutor) to adopt the evidential and public interest tests of the CPS. I also believe that I am correct in stating that there is no requirement for a 'public interest test' of any form to be applied to any private prosecution. I do understand that some law firms and practitioners will state otherwise (and they might have good business reasons for assessing their risk), but ultimately it will fall to the Court to assess the matter (whether on receiving an information, during case management or during trial), and anyway, any decision to refuse at any of those stages would be open to Judicial Review.

There have been private prosecutions where the CPS have already deemed that the matter had failed to meet adequate 'public interest'.

In 2009 there were calls to change this position (following the arrest warrant issued against Israel's foreign minister, Livni), but all that happened was that special conditions concerning offences by foreigners on foreign soil would have to be approved by the DPP.
The 'public interest test' applied by the CPS may indeed be applied by the CPS in considering whether or not to 'take over' and terminate a private prosecution, but it would be for them to do that, not the prosecutor, and only if the matter comes to their attention. There is no automatic process of notifying the CPS of a private prosecution (and with the widely criticised cut-backs on CPS resources leading to regular accusations by the Courts of serious failures , based on their current workload of cases generated by the Police, I don't think we should expect any CPS attention to be turned towards private prosecutions in practice. I think the CPS under-resourcing situation will reach crisis point quite soon).

I quote from a House of Commons briefing paper on the subject of Private Prosecutions by Sally Almandras:
House of Commons Briefing - Private Prosecutions - 2010

The CPS may also decide to discontinue a private prosecution where either the evidential sufficiency stage or the public interest stage of the “Full Code Test”, which sets out the conditions that should be satisfied before a public prosecution is instituted, is not met. However, the CPS does not apply the Test in the same way as it does when it is deciding whether to institute a public prosecution:
[Laws LJ in R v Director of Public Prosecutions, ex parte Duckenfield and another; R v South Yorkshire Police Authority and another, ex parte Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire Police and others, [2000] 1 WLR 55]
...it could not be right for the DPP to apply across the board the same tests, in particular the 'reasonable prospect of conviction' test ... in considering whether to take over and discontinue a private prosecution as the code enjoins crown prosecutors to follow in deciding whether to institute or proceed with a prosecution themselves; the consequence would be that the DPP would stop a private prosecution merely on the ground that the case is not one which he would himself proceed with. But that, in my judgment, would amount to an emasculation of s 6(1) * and itself be an unlawful policy; ... The very premise of s 6(1) must be that some cases will go to trial which the DPP himself chooses not to prosecute.​
* 1985 Prosecution of Offences Act

Later in that same judgement, Laws LJ remarks : "The private prosecutor is very likely to take a different view as to where the public interest lies than does the DPP, and s.6(l), I think, implies that he is entitled to do so. The approach urged by Mr Harrison would in effect require the pnvate 45 prosecutor to persuade the DPP that his view of the public interest is plainly right. I consider it strongly arguable that that would place an illegitimate constraint upon the right of private prosecution"

All parties though, should be working consistently within the Criminal Procedure Rules (CPR) and Practice Directions

Of course I fully agree with you that there is an element of public interest in that a fine following conviction acrues to the Treasury.

I'm reflecting on the difficulties that might arise if there WAS a requirement for all private prosecutions to meet the CPS's 'public interest test'. I struggle in cases -
- where there is a challenge following an application of a Police 'neither admit nor deny' policy (see the Pritchard enquiry into covert Police surveillance which has just enlisted Ken Livingstone as a key witness); or
- where a prosecution of murder or manslaughter against a close relative of a terminally ill patient who requested a physician's assistance in dying (where, in the context of assisted dying, the CPS has said that there is a 'public interest' in all murders); or
- where the offence is Malicious Prosecution (where the same CPS might be asked to apply the same test to both the original prosecution, and then, to the counter claim of malicious prosecution of the same matter); or
- where the offence is a tort of nuisance or negigence with negligible 'public interest' and negligible damages, but great personal impact on the claimant which an injunction could achieve.

I probably should study these examples further before trying to make a point out of them, so please only consider this list as grounds for further reflection and not for argument.

--- old post above --- --- new post below ---

If the English and Welsh private prosecutions are so good, why isn't the same law brought in, in Scotland?
The 'same law' would be a Scottish variant of the 1985 Prosecution of Offences Act, but as I explained above, that is not strictly necessary as it would only regularise statute with Common Law - the possibility for a citizen to bring about a private prosecution has been possible in Common Law for a thousand years. While there is no real need for a statute, the difficulty in Scotland is the resistance of the Courts to enter territory they don't want to enter. I witnessed a prime example a few weeks ago when the Lord Advocate was defending an application for a Judicial Review. He didn't. He had to repeat himself four times : "if the Court accepts the Claimant's petition then the Lord Advocate will offer no resistance". The Lords seemed to be pretending this wasn't happeneing to them : "What do you mean by that?". And he just repeated his guarantee of no resistance : the state's acceptance that the matter against the state should be heard, while it was clear that the Lords were looking to him for reasons to refuse the challenge in the petition. Reasons which were not going to be forthcoming! (Isn't it ironic that the adversarial structure of Courts, the ultimate decision makers, sometimes leads them to trying so very hard to avoid making a decision when the counter-arguments are deliberately not being presented to them? - what we call in England & Wales : offering no evidence)

I can see why private prosecutions are useful. What if Hillsborough had occurred in Scotland?
I would expect that an opening would be found in a coroner's report or a court's judgement to mount a Judicial Review, and if that was to be challengehd, then it would go to the Supreme Court (until that last leg became more difficult for Scottish apellants when the Supreme Court raised te bar for Scottish Appeals last year, to coincide with the passing of the 2014 Victims and Witnesses (Scotland) Act which I and najaB have referred to above).
 
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infobleep

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Because there is no power to "bring it in" in Scotland. Scottish law is a separate and equal legal system.

Edit: That said, changes made last year have made it more likely that permission will be granted for private prosecutions in future. The legal fraternity are watching with great interest to see what happens in the case of the families of the victims of the Glasgow bin lorry crash. As I understand it they are attempting to bring a private prosecution against Harry Clarke due facts that have come to light subsequent to the Procurator Fiscal's decision not to bring charges.

Surely they could be given the power to bring it in. Someone had to give that power in England and Wales.

Are there many other unions that have separate legal systems? I guess America does. It's fascinating.
--- old post above --- --- new post below ---
I hesitate to disagree, and in fact I will agree up to a point, that a prosecutor acting for a Railway Company would, as a matter of good practice and of policy, act in accordance with CPS guidance.
However, my discussion above was in the more general form of a contrast between policy in public and private prosecutions; and in that I believe that I am correct that there is no binding requirement on an individual, a corporate body, an agency or an unincorporated body who brings forward a prosecution (a private prosecutor) to adopt the evidential and public interest tests of the CPS. I also believe that I am correct in stating that there is no requirement for a 'public interest test' of any form to be applied to any private prosecution. I do understand that some law firms and practitioners will state otherwise (and they might have good business reasons for assessing their risk), but ultimately it will fall to the Court to assess the matter (whether on receiving an information, during case management or during trial), and anyway, any decision to refuse at any of those stages would be open to Judicial Review.

There have been private prosecutions where the CPS have already deemed that the matter had failed to meet adequate 'public interest'.

In 2009 there were calls to change this position (following the arrest warrant issued against Israel's foreign minister, Livni), but all that happened was that special conditions concerning offences by foreigners on foreign soil would have to be approved by the DPP.
The 'public interest test' applied by the CPS may indeed be applied by the CPS in considering whether or not to 'take over' and terminate a private prosecution, but it would be for them to do that, not the prosecutor, and only if the matter comes to their attention. There is no automatic process of notifying the CPS of a private prosecution (and with the widely criticised cut-backs on CPS resources leading to regular accusations by the Courts of serious failures , based on their current workload of cases generated by the Police, I don't think we should expect any CPS attention to be turned towards private prosecutions in practice. I think the CPS under-resourcing situation will reach crisis point quite soon).

I quote from a House of Commons briefing paper on the subject of Private Prosecutions by Sally Almandras:
* 1985 Prosecution of Offences Act

Later in that same judgement, Laws LJ remarks : "The private prosecutor is very likely to take a different view as to where the public interest lies than does the DPP, and s.6(l), I think, implies that he is entitled to do so. The approach urged by Mr Harrison would in effect require the pnvate 45 prosecutor to persuade the DPP that his view of the public interest is plainly right. I consider it strongly arguable that that would place an illegitimate constraint upon the right of private prosecution"

All parties though, should be working consistently within the Criminal Procedure Rules (CPR) and Practice Directions

Of course I fully agree with you that there is an element of public interest in that a fine following conviction acrues to the Treasury.

I'm reflecting on the difficulties that might arise if there WAS a requirement for all private prosecutions to meet the CPS's 'public interest test'. I struggle in cases -
- where there is a challenge following an application of a Police 'neither admit nor deny' policy (see the Pritchard enquiry into covert Police surveillance which has just enlisted Ken Livingstone as a key witness); or
- where a prosecution of murder or manslaughter against a close relative of a terminally ill patient who requested a physician's assistance in dying (where, in the context of assisted dying, the CPS has said that there is a 'public interest' in all murders); or
- where the offence is Malicious Prosecution (where the same CPS might be asked to apply the same test to both the original prosecution, and then, to the counter claim of malicious prosecution of the same matter); or
- where the offence is a tort of nuisance or negigence with negligible 'public interest' and negligible damages, but great personal impact on the claimant which an injunction could achieve.

I probably should study these examples further before trying to make a point out of them, so please only consider this list as grounds for further reflection and not for argument.

--- old post above --- --- new post below ---

The 'same law' would be a Scottish variant of the 1985 Prosecution of Offences Act, but as I explained above, that is not strictly necessary as it would only regularise statute with Common Law - the possibility for a citizen to bring about a private prosecution has been possible in Common Law for a thousand years. While there is no real need for a statute, the difficulty in Scotland is the resistance of the Courts to enter territory they don't want to enter. I witnessed a prime example a few weeks ago when the Lord Advocate was defending an application for a Judicial Review. He didn't. He had to repeat himself four times : "if the Court accepts the Claimant's petition then the Lord Advocate will offer no resistance". The Lords seemed to be pretending this wasn't happeneing to them : "What do you mean by that?". And he just repeated his guarantee of no resistance : the state's acceptance that the matter against the state should be heard, while it was clear that the Lords were looking to him for reasons to refuse the challenge in the petition. Reasons which were not going to be forthcoming! (Isn't it ironic that the adversarial structure of Courts, the ultimate decision makers, sometimes leads them to trying so very hard to avoid making a decision when the counter-arguments are deliberately not being presented to them? - what we call in England & Wales : offering no evidence)

I would expect that an opening would be found in a coroner's report or a court's judgement to mount a Judicial Review, and if that was to be challengehd, then it would go to the Supreme Court (until that last leg became more difficult for Scottish apellants when the Supreme Court raised te bar for Scottish Appeals last year, to coincide with the passing of the 2014 Victims and Witnesses (Scotland) Act which I and najaB have referred to above).

Fair enough. I don't understand everything you have written but in sure it's reasonable.

If courts in Scotland don't wish to go into territory they don't wish to enter, could a law have been brought in to force them to do so.

I'm not trying to criticise anything here. I'm just fascinated at how the countries laws differ within the union.
 

cuccir

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Presumably a law from the Scottish Parliament could make changes though?
 

DaveNewcastle

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Surely they could be given the power to bring it in. Someone had to give that power in England and Wales.
As I mentioned above, the right to bring a private prosecution pre-dates any alternative. It's older than the Magna Carta. It continues to exist as a matter of Common Law, in both England and Scotland.
In Scotland the Lord Advocate would have to be persuaded to allow such prosecutions to be allocated to Courts for Summonsing and hearing.
 
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