tramdan
Member
- Joined
- 4 Aug 2015
- Messages
- 118
Hi folks, I’m looking for some clarity on the above topic.
This is partly theoretical but also a very real potential problem. If a passenger wishes to buy a specific ticket (for example a Ranger or Rover, or a ticket with a specific discount) that is not available from a TVM, are they considered to have had an opportunity to pay?
An example that a passenger gave on Twitter was that he purchases a ticket to London CIV from Grantham ticket office. He asked LNER if he would be allowed to travel down to Kings Cross and then purchase the ticket on arrival. LNER advised that he would need a ticket to travel before boarding.
I was always under the impression that the answer to my initial question was that yes, a passenger hasn’t had an opportunity to pay, and they should not be inconvenienced by the railway’s inability to provide them the opportunity to buy the ticket they need.
I would appreciate members’ thoughts on this, and any links to documentation that support any point of view.
This is partly theoretical but also a very real potential problem. If a passenger wishes to buy a specific ticket (for example a Ranger or Rover, or a ticket with a specific discount) that is not available from a TVM, are they considered to have had an opportunity to pay?
An example that a passenger gave on Twitter was that he purchases a ticket to London CIV from Grantham ticket office. He asked LNER if he would be allowed to travel down to Kings Cross and then purchase the ticket on arrival. LNER advised that he would need a ticket to travel before boarding.
I was always under the impression that the answer to my initial question was that yes, a passenger hasn’t had an opportunity to pay, and they should not be inconvenienced by the railway’s inability to provide them the opportunity to buy the ticket they need.
I would appreciate members’ thoughts on this, and any links to documentation that support any point of view.