Hebden Bridger
Member
- Joined
- 29 Sep 2013
- Messages
- 163
The industry relies on the requirement to be in posession of a valid ticket before entering a train or platform, which makes it easy for inspectors to differentiate those who have paid and those who would only pay when challenged. (At this point, many on here point to those parts of the Country where it is, or has been, custom and practice to pay-on-board, but those circumstances don't appear to apply to this incident).
The requirement to be in possession of a valid ticket is expressed in the section of the Act you quoted: "having previously paid". 'Previously' is not 'negated' by 'offering to pay when challenged'.
There is ample Case Law to confirm this interpretation - it lies at the core of the first principles in the detection of fare evasion.
'Attempting to travel without having previously paid his fare' is satisfied when a passenger produces an expired and/or used ticket for the journey about to be taken.
While I defer to your knowledge of case law, I'd be interested to know the actual cases. I would have thought that the likelihood of a used ticket operating a ticket gate is low (well about zero in the ones I know of), hence the consequence of travelling without a ticket by is anything but probable or natural as required by Section 8 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967, although I do understand the court may consider all the evidence in determining whether or not there was intent.
Not that I offer this as any sort of legal advice to the OP, this was just the basis of my opinion in a previous post that intent would be difficult for the TOC to prove in this case.