Railwaysceptic
Established Member
- Joined
- 6 Nov 2017
- Messages
- 1,592
I think you're making this more complicated than it needs to be. If a good bus service is over-subscribed, the question then is whether to make the service more frequent or to change to a rail service. If a bus service is lightly used, the question then is why. Is it because the area is lightly populated or because the service is poor? If the service is poor, then improve the service, but either way at that point there is no sense in thinking of the much more expensive option of a railway.If we accept that a well patronised bus service means that the service is good enough (thus no need to reopen the railway), it becomes difficult to identify when a railway would be needed. If the bus service wasn't good enough, and thus not well patronised, how would one distinguish between a situation where the poor bus service suppresses demand, and a situation where there is little demand in the first place? The thrust of the argument is that the original assertion is wrong: a regular bus service doesn't necessarily mean that there is no need for a railway service.